SAP C-EPMBPC-70 덤프자료

ITExamDump를 선택함으로, ITExamDump는 여러분SAP인증C-EPMBPC-70시험을 패스할 수 있도록 보장하고,만약 시험실패시 ITExamDump에서는 덤프비용전액환불을 약속합니다.

ITExamDump의 SAP인증 C-EPMBPC-70덤프를 구매하시고 공부하시면 밝은 미래를 예약한것과 같습니다. ITExamDump의 SAP인증 C-EPMBPC-70덤프는 고객님이 시험에서 통과하여 중요한 IT인증자격증을 취득하게끔 도와드립니다. IT인증자격증은 국제적으로 인정받기에 취직이나 승진 혹은 이직에 힘을 가해드립니다. 학원공부나 다른 시험자료가 필요없이ITExamDump의 SAP인증 C-EPMBPC-70덤프만 공부하시면SAP인증 C-EPMBPC-70시험을 패스하여 자격증을 취득할수 있습니다.

많은 사이트에서SAP 인증C-EPMBPC-70 인증시험대비자료를 제공하고 있습니다. 그중에서 ITExamDump를 선택한 분들은SAP 인증C-EPMBPC-70시험통과의 지름길에 오른것과 같습니다. ITExamDump는 시험에서 불합격성적표를 받으시면 덤프비용을 환불하는 서

시험 번호/코드: C-EPMBPC-70
시험 이름: SAP (Business Planning and Consolidation with SAP BPC 7.0)
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Q&A: 80 문항
업데이트: 2014-01-26

IT업계에서 자신만의 위치를 찾으려면 자격증을 많이 취득하는것이 큰 도움이 될것입니다. SAP 인증 C-EPMBPC-70시험은 아주 유용한 시험입니다. SAP 인증C-EPMBPC-70시험출제경향을 퍼펙트하게 연구하여ITExamDump에서는SAP 인증C-EPMBPC-70시험대비덤프를 출시하였습니다. ITExamDump에서 제공해드리는SAP 인증C-EPMBPC-70시험덤프는 시장에서 판매하고 있는SAP 인증C-EPMBPC-70덤프중 가장 최신버전덤프로서 덤프에 있는 문제만 공부하시면 시험통과가 쉬워집니다.

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NO.1 What actions are possible with work status?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Using it only with entity and time type dimensions
B. Bypassing it while executing a data management package
C. Linking it to multiple hierarchies for an Application
D. Launching it from the content library
Answer: B,D

SAP기출문제   C-EPMBPC-70   C-EPMBPC-70 pdf   C-EPMBPC-70인증

NO.2 Who is notified when a step is completed using Business Process Flow?
A. BPF User
B. BPF Manager
C. BPF Owner
D. BPF Reviewer
Answer: C

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NO.3 For which dimension can you activate a data audit trail for an Application?
A. Category
B. Account
C. Time
D. Entity
Answer: A

SAP기출문제   C-EPMBPC-70 dump   C-EPMBPC-70덤프

NO.4 What interfaces can you use during the step Define Action when setting up a BPF?
A. Manage Books, BPC Web, BPC for Word
B. BPC Administration, BPC for Excel, BPC for Word
C. Data Audit, BPC for Excel, BPC for PowerPoint
D. Journal, BPC for Excel, BPC for Word
Answer: D

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NO.5 Where do you set the data audit to capture transactional data changes?
A. At Appset level in Admin Console
B. At Appset level in Web Admin
C. At Application level in Admin Console
D. At Application level in Web Admin
Answer: D

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NO.6 For which scenario is it impossible to use the work status?
A. To allow or disallow a user to modify data
B. To lock a region of data in an Application
C. To lock a step in a Business Process Flow
D. To track the status of a planning process
Answer: C

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NO.7 How do you control inserting records into the database in BPC?
A. Via Work Status
B. Via Business Rules
C. Via Distributor and Collector
D. Via Audit
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which step is required to store a comment to a filled cell in an Excel pop-up in BPC for
NetWeaver.?
A. Save the Excel workbook locally.
B. Enable comments in the Application parameters.
C. Assign a keyword.
D. Enable comments in the Application Set parameters.
Answer: B

SAP dump   C-EPMBPC-70   C-EPMBPC-70

NO.9 What tasks are accomplished during full optimization in BPC for NetWeaver?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Creating a copy of the MultiProvider for the BPC Application
B. Closing the open request after posting 50,000 records
C. Updating DB statistics for the InfoCube
D. Compressing and indexing the InfoCube
E. Executing a data model analysis and alerting if the data model can be improved
Answer: C,D

SAP자료   C-EPMBPC-70최신덤프   C-EPMBPC-70

NO.10 What tasks can be done using the Web Administration?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Changing documents type but not document subtype
B. Activating but not deactivating auditing
C. Adjusting the version number of a report template
D. Setting up file types
Answer: C,D

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NO.11 What is the consequence in BPC for NetWeaver when updating the web admin
parameters without
entering the required parameters?
A. Warnings
B. Nothing
C. Crashes
D. Errors
Answer: B

SAP   C-EPMBPC-70   C-EPMBPC-70자격증

NO.12 What fields are required to eliminate the investment when using the 'All Formula'?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Source Account
B. Destination Group Account
C. Destination Equity Account
D. Destination Minority Interest
E. Destination All Account
Answer: A,E

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NO.13 What settings do you need for Source Account to calculate the liability account 'annual
net income'
(ANI)?
A. Expense, Destination Account = Revenue and ANI, do not reverse sign
B. Revenue and Cost, Destination Account = ANI, do not reverse sign
C. Revenue and Cost, Destination Account = ANI, reverse sign
D. Expense, Destination Account = Revenue and ANI, reverse sign
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is a restriction for BPC validation rules in BPC for NetWeaver?
A. A BPC validation rule cannot use a BAdI implementation.
B. Multiple BPC validation rules cannot be applied to multiple dimension members of a
dimension.
C. Multiple BPC validation rules cannot refer to the same dimension member.
D. A BPC validation rule cannot refer to multiple driver dimensions.
Answer: D

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NO.15 What value is used in the destination flow column of the currency conversion business
rule when there
is no subtable type dimension in the Application?
A. Same as in the destination account column
B. Same as in the source account rate type column
C. Same as in the source flow column
D. Same as in the formula column
Answer: C

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SAP C-HANAIMP-1 덤프데모

Pass4Tes가 제공하는 제품을 사용함으로 여러분은 IT업계하이클래스와 멀지 않았습니다. Pass4Tes 가 제공하는 인증시험덤프는 여러분을SAP인증C-HANAIMP-1시험을 안전하게 통과는 물론 관연전업지식장악에도 많은 도움이 되며 또한 우리는 일년무료 업뎃서비스를 제공합니다.

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시험 번호/코드: C-HANAIMP-1
시험 이름: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP HANA 1.0 )
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NO.1 Which new connection type is available as of SAP BusinessObjects Data Services 4.0?
A. Operational Data Provider
B. BAPI function calls
C. IDOCs
D. Read table via ABAP data flows
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which SAP BusinessObjects reporting tool should you use to answer ad-hoc questions and
interact with shared information?
A. Crystal Reports
B. Dashboards
C. Explorer
D. WebIntelligence
Answer: D

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NO.3 If you want to create or drop tables in a schema, which privilege type do you need?
A. SYSTEM
B. ANALYTIC
C. PACKAGE
D. SQL
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following properties of a derived attribute view can you modify?
A. Description
B. Description mapping
C. Calculated attributes
D. Filters
Answer: A

SAP   C-HANAIMP-1자격증   C-HANAIMP-1

NO.5 Which of the following tasks must you perform before you build a business layer within the
SAP BusinessObjects Information Design Tool (IDT) on top of SAP HANA? (Choose three)
A. Publish the connection to CMS.
B. Build a query to test the connection.
C. Build a relational connection to SAP HANA.
D. Build an OLAP connection to SAP HANA.
E. Build a data foundation.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.6 Which delivered role is mandatory for a system administrator in SAP HANA?
A. SYS_ADMIN
B. CONTENT_ADMIN
C. SAP_ALL
D. IC MODELER
Answer: B

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NO.7 You have a Web Intelligence report that requires data from SAP HANA filtered for a specific
year.
Where do you apply the filter for optimal performance?
A. In the universe
B. In the Web Intelligence report
C. In the analytic view
D. In the calculation view using an attribute value variable
Answer: C

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NO.8 What are the key benefits of using SAP BusinessObjects Explorer with SAP HANA? (Choose
three)
A. You do not need to create your own queries to access information.
B. You can easily create your own queries to access information.
C. You can access information for data discovery intuitively.
D. You can execute ad-hoc business analytics quickly.
E. You can easily create an IDT business layer.
Answer: A,C,D

SAP   C-HANAIMP-1인증   C-HANAIMP-1시험문제

NO.9 How can you evaluate the speed of a calculation within the database? (Choose two)
A. Use the Data Preview function in the SAP HANA studio.
B. Execute a Web Intelligence report and check the duration of the previous refresh.
C. Execute an information space using SAP BusinessObjects Explorer.
D. Write and execute an appropriate SQL statement.
Answer: A,D

SAP   C-HANAIMP-1   C-HANAIMP-1

NO.10 What are benefits of using a business layer on top of SAP HANA? (Choose two)
A. An extra layer of granular security
B. Improved database calculation speed
C. Fast throughput via BICS connectivity
D. Users can use business names instead of technical names
Answer: A,D

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SAP C_TFIN52_66 인증 덤프

ITExamDump에서 발췌한 SAP인증 C_TFIN52_66덤프는 전문적인 IT인사들이 연구정리한 최신버전 SAP인증 C_TFIN52_66시험에 대비한 공부자료입니다. SAP인증 C_TFIN52_66 덤프에 있는 문제만 이해하고 공부하신다면SAP인증 C_TFIN52_66시험을 한방에 패스하여 자격증을 쉽게 취득할수 있을것입니다.

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시험 번호/코드: C_TFIN52_66
시험 이름: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Financial Accounting with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6)
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NO.1 What are the prerequisites for setting up cross-company-code cost accounting? (Choose two)
A. The same fiscal year variant is used for all company codes.
B. The same currency is used for all company codes.
C. The same variant for open periods is used for all company codes.
D. The same chart of accounts is used for all company codes.
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 You have two house banks. Each house bank has three bank accounts.
How many separate G/L accounts do you recommend the customer creates in the chart of
accounts?
A. Six – one for each combination of house bank and bank account
B. One for all postings
C. Two – one for each house bank
D. Three – one for each bank account
Answer: A

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NO.3 To which of the following does an asset class apply?
A. To all company codes in a controlling area
B. To all company codes in an instance (client-independent)
C. To all company codes in a client
D. To all company codes within a client, which share the same chart of accounts
Answer: C

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NO.4 For reports in Asset Accounting, which object do you have to use and, where necessary,
customize to determine the sort level and/or the summation level?
A. Depreciation area
B. Sort key
C. Sort variant
D. Valuation area
Answer: C

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NO.5 In your leading ledger (ledger solution), balance sheets must be created for company codes
and
segments.
Which Customizing settings do you need to make? (Choose two)
A. Define a retained earnings account.
B. Define two retained earnings accounts and assign them to your P&L accounts.
C. Assign the Segment Reporting scenario to your leading ledger.
D. Activate cost of sales accounting.
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 Which line item field is filled automatically by the sort key field of a master record (G/L
account,
customer, or vendor)?
A. Item text
B. Assignment
C. Amount in document currency
D. Number of the invoice to which the transaction belongs
Answer: B

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NO.7 You post a G/L document. For the Text field, the field status of the posting key is set to
Required
Entry and the field status of the G/L account is set to Hidden Entry?
What happens during posting?
A. The document is posted.
B. A warning message is shown.
C. An error message is shown.
D. The Text field is hidden.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following accounts are updated directly?
A. Accounts in the group chart of accounts
B. Accounts in the operating chart of accounts
C. Accounts in the master chart of accounts
D. Accounts in the country chart of accounts
Answer: B

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NO.9 Your company currently uses internal number ranges for documents. You are rolling out your
system in a new country. It is a legal requirement in this country to have external document
numbering on vendor invoices (currently document type KR). You have copied the number ranges
from the existing company code to the new company code.
Which Customizing settings do you have to make to meet this requirement and have a minimal
effect on the existing system configuration?
A. Mark a new document number range as external and assign it to the document type KR.
B. Create a new external document type and assign the number range 51 to the new document
type.
C. Create a new document type and a new external number range interval as external. Assign the
new number range to the new document type.
D. Mark existing number range interval 51 as external for the new company code.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following task types are supported by the Closing Cockpit or Schedule Manager?
(Choose three)
A. Spreadsheets
B. Transactions
C. Reconciliation keys
D. Notes (as a reminder or milestone)
E. Programs with or without variant
Answer: B,D,E

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시험 번호/코드: C_THR12_66
시험 이름: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Human Capital Management with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6)
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NO.1 Which report identifies and creates missing objects relevant for consistent integration
between
Personnel Administration and Organizational Management?
A. RHINTECHECK
B. RPUDEL20
C. RHINTE20
D. RPUDELPN
Answer: C

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NO.2 You are setting up a time management process where all times are recorded. You want to
allow
the administrator to maintain alternate work schedules. Which method would you choose?
A. Positive time management with the addition of IT2004 (Availability)
B. Negative time management with the addition of IT2004 (Availability)
C. Negative time management with the addition of IT2003 (Substitutions)
D. Positive time management with the addition of IT2003 (Substitutions)
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which is the typical sequence of steps in an ASAP roadmap?
A. • Business Blueprint
• Project Preparation
• Final Preparation
• Realization
• Go Live Support
B. • Project Preparation
• Business Blueprint
• Realization
• Final Preparation
• Go Live Support
C. • Project Preparation
• Final preparation
• Business Blueprint
• Realization
• Go Live Support
D. • Project Preparation
• Realization
• Business Blueprint
• Final Preparation
• Go Live Support
Answer: B

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NO.4 You need to set up a reminder to notify the customer about the expiry of probation periods of
employees one month in advance. The probation period is 3 months. What do you need to do?
(Choose two)
A. Define default values with DATAR feature.
B. Select Lead/Follow-Up Time and Operator Values on IT0041 (Date Specifications).
C. Set up a background job of the Date Monitoring report.
D. Set up a dynamic action that creates an IT0019 (Monitoring of Tasks) record during a hiring or
rehiring action.
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 In which logical database are you able to restrict the InfoSet using an object type?
A. PLOGI
B. PCH
C. PAP
D. PNPCE
Answer: B

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NO.6 Your employee receives a pay raise effective July 1st of the current year. What is the
recommended way to update IT0008 (Basic Pay)?
A. Choose the Delimit function and change the end date to June 30th.
B. Change the existing record effective July 1st.
C. Create a new record effective July 1st and delete the old record.
D. Create a new record effective July 1st.
Answer: D

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NO.7 When processing payroll, the Payroll Administrator receives the error message "Division by 0 is
not possible" for one employee.
What could have caused this error?
A. The employee does not have an IT0008 (Basic Pay) with work hours per period.
B. The employee does not have a valid time management status assigned on IT0007 (Planned
Working Time).
C. Feature SCHKZ defaults the wrong work schedule rule on IT0007 (Planned Working Time).
D. Feature LGMST defaults the wrong indirect amount on IT0008 (Basic Pay).
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two switches are mandatory to activate the integration between Personnel
Administration
and Organizational Management? (Choose two)
A. PLOGI ORGA
B. PLOGI PLOGI
C. PLOGI EVENB
D. PLOGI EVPAC
E. PLOGI PRELI
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 Which of the following are standard prerequisites for an employee to use the Manager's Self
Service? (Choose three)
A. The organizational structure has been developed for the company.
B. The employee is designated as a manager using the organizational key on IT0001
(Organizational Assignment).
C. The employee holds the chief position of an organizational unit.
D. The employee has an active user ID assigned on IT0105 (Communication).
E. The employee has authorization to use PA20 (Display Master Data) to display their employees'
data.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.10 An employee was on vacation. In addition to entering a vacation absence record, the
employee
also wants to create an overtime record on the same day. Which elements must be configured to
prevent this scenario? (Choose two)
A. The reaction indicator
B. The absence/attendance class
C. The time constraint class
D. The collision class
E. The availability indicator
Answer: A,C

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시험 번호/코드: C_SASEAA_15
시험 이름: SAP (Adaptive Server Enterprise 15 Administrator Associate)
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NO.1 When using ASE device mirroring, what does the administrator have the ability to perform?
A. Copy a database to several different devices
B. Copy a database from several devices to a single device
C. Copy an entire device from one location to another
D. Copy only system tables from one device to another
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the command used to dynamically increase the size of a database device?
A. disk init.
B. disk reinit.
C. disk resize.
D. alter database.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Maximum database size for 2K pages is?
A. 32 GB
B. 256 GB
C. 2 TB
D. 4 TB
E. 8 TB
Answer: D

SAP   C_SASEAA_15   C_SASEAA_15   C_SASEAA_15

NO.4 Which of the following system databases will be built during an ASE installation? (Choose
four.)
A. master
B. model
C. sybsyntax
D. sybsecurity
E. sybsystemdb
F. sybsystemprocs
Answer: A,B,E,F

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NO.5 Using the 'sp_who' output, how can you identify a system process?
A. The process ID is below 15
B. The origname is NULL
C. The loginame is system
D. The hostname is the name of the machine ASE is running from
Answer: B

SAP   C_SASEAA_15   C_SASEAA_15 pdf

NO.6 Which command can be used to check the maximum number of locks used since ASE server
was
started?
A. sp_configure
B. sp_helpconfig
C. sp_poolconfig
D. sp_monitorconfig
E. sp_countmetadata
Answer: D

SAP자료   C_SASEAA_15덤프   C_SASEAA_15   C_SASEAA_15 pdf

NO.7 Which database option must be set to run dbcc checkalloc in fix mode?
A. dbo use only
B. ddl in tran
C. no chkpt on recovery
D. select into/bulkcopy/pllsort
E. single user
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which command is used to display the current server EBF level?
A. select * from syslogshold
B. select @@servername
C. select * from sysservers
D. select @@version
Answer: D

SAP   C_SASEAA_15   C_SASEAA_15자료   C_SASEAA_15   C_SASEAA_15

NO.9 How large can a table, column and index name be?
A. 32 bytes
B. 64 bytes
C. 128 bytes
D. 255 bytes
Answer: D

SAP자격증   C_SASEAA_15   C_SASEAA_15   C_SASEAA_15인증

NO.10 Which table identifies the process that has the oldest active transaction and how long that
transaction has been open?
A. master..sysprocesses
B. master..syslogshold
C. master..syslogins
D. master..syslocks
E. master..systransactions
Answer: B

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시험 번호/코드: C_HANASUP_1
시험 이름: SAP (SAP Certified Support Associate - SAP HANA 1.0)
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NO.1 How can you set configurations at the system level using the SAP HANA studio?
A. Enter values in the System column in the Configuration tab in the Administration editor.
B. Right-click on a system in the Navigator pane and select Open Security from the context menu.
C. Right-click on a setting in the Configuration tab in the Administration editor, select Change, and
enter values for all hosts.
D. Enter values in the Properties view when you use the Overview tab of the Administration editor.
Answer: C

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NO.2 An SAP HANA developer receives an error when running an SAP HANA Predictive Analysis
Library procedure. In which of the following files can you find more information?
A. Script server log
B. Index server log
C. Name server log
D. Statistics server log
Answer: D

SAP시험문제   C_HANASUP_1   C_HANASUP_1자료   C_HANASUP_1

NO.3 What do you have to consider when you want to unpartition an SAP HANA table? (Choose
three)
Unpartitioning blocks concurrent read access to the table during the process.
A. An exclusive lock on the table is required.
B. Unpartitioning can table a long time to complete.
C. Only read access is allowed during the unpartitioning process.
D. Only tables of more than 2 billion rows can be unpartitioned.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.4 How can you restore a default parameter configuration setting in the SAP HANA studio?
(Choose two)
A. In the context menu of a configuration parameter, choose Configure Table, and the Restore
Default.
B. In the context menu of a configuration parameter, choose Change, and then Restore Default.
C. In the context menu of a configuration parameter, choose Delete.
D. Choose Window-Preference-Administration Console and select Restore Defaults.
Answer: B,C

SAP   C_HANASUP_1   C_HANASUP_1   C_HANASUP_1시험문제

NO.5 You granted a user the system privileges INIFILE ADMIN and DATA ADMIN. What does this
allow the user to do?
A. Modify the nameserver_history.trc files.
B. Reset the backup.log file.
C. Modify configuration files.
D. Reset the log.txt file
Answer: C

SAP자료   C_HANASUP_1자격증   C_HANASUP_1   C_HANASUP_1   C_HANASUP_1

NO.6 For which purposes can you use the Table locks system report?
A. To investigate locked table names
B. To unlock tables
C. To investigate table lock transaction owners
D. To kill locking transactions
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which parameters can you configure for an expensive statement trace? (Choose two)
A. Passport trace level
B. Threshold duration
C. Trace status
D. Trace file
Answer: B,C

SAP   C_HANASUP_1기출문제   C_HANASUP_1   C_HANASUP_1 pdf   C_HANASUP_1인증

NO.8 Which of the following can you determine using the Backup catalog report? (Choose two)
A. The path for the backup files
B. Whether a recovery is possible
C. Which backup files are obsolete
D. When to execute the net backup
Answer: B,C

SAP   C_HANASUP_1   C_HANASUP_1   C_HANASUP_1

NO.9 In the SAP HANA studio, which of the following SQL thread details can you monitor by using
the Threads subtab of the Performance tab of the Administration editor? (Choose three)
A. The SQL statement
B. The generated data
C. The service name
D. The blocking status
E. The visual execution plan
Answer: B,C,D

SAP   C_HANASUP_1 dumps   C_HANASUP_1   C_HANASUP_1

NO.10 In the SAP HANA studio, in which subtab of the Landscape tab of the Administration editor
can you check the statuses of all hosts in a high-availability scenario?
A. Configuration
B. Services
C. Secondary System Replication
D. Redistribution
Answer: A

SAP기출문제   C_HANASUP_1인증   C_HANASUP_1 pdf   C_HANASUP_1기출문제   C_HANASUP_1

NO.11 Which of the following are held in SAP HANA used memory? (Choose two)
A. Free memory pool
B. Temporary computations
C. Heap memory
D. Column and row tables
Answer: B,D

SAP   C_HANASUP_1시험문제   C_HANASUP_1자격증   C_HANASUP_1   C_HANASUP_1   C_HANASUP_1인증

NO.12 Which of the following events can trigger a delta merge? (Choose two)
A. Memory consumption of delta storage drops below a specified limit.
B. The delta log for a columnar table drops below a defined limit.
C. The delta log for a columnar table exceeds a defined limit.
D. Memory consumption of delta storage exceeds a specified limit.
Answer: C,D

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NO.13 Which of the following can you transport using CTS/CTS+? (Choose two)
A. Analytic privilege
B. Calculation view
C. Index
D. Table
Answer: A,B

SAP   C_HANASUP_1   C_HANASUP_1기출문제   C_HANASUP_1

NO.14 In the SAP HANA studio Administration Editor, for the following purposes can you use the
Sessions subtab of the Performance tab? (Choose two)
A. To view memory consumption by session
B. To investigate blocking situations
C. To set up session-based alerts
D. To configure the maximum allowed concurrent sessions
Answer: A,B

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NO.15 Which part of an expensive statement trace would you investigate to identify possible
performance improvements?
A. Statement string
B. Statement length
C. TOTAL_LOCK_WAIT_TIME
D. ALLOC_MEM_SIZE_COLSTORE
Answer: A

SAP자료   C_HANASUP_1   C_HANASUP_1   C_HANASUP_1 dump

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시험 번호/코드: 200-045
시험 이름: Isilon (Isilon Clustered Storage Professional Exam)
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NO.1 Which command line tool is used to manage replacing a failed disk drive? (Choose 1)
A.The "isi devices" tool
B.No command line tool is used - replaced drives are detected automatically by the node.
C.The "isi config" tool
D.The "isi disks" tool
Answer:A

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NO.2 Which of the following methods can be used to verify connectivity to a LDAP directory server? (Choose
1)
A.From the command line of a node, use the "ldapsearch" utility.
B.From the command line of a node, enter "isi ldap config". Pick menu option 3 "Check server
connectivity".
C.From the WebAdmin of a node, go to "File System" / "Directory Services" / "LDAP Services". Click
"Check server connectivity"
D.From the command line of a node, enter "isi_ldap_check".
Answer:A

Isilon dump   200-045   200-045기출문제

NO.3 Which of the following commands can be used to view the status of restripe operations? (Choose 2)
A."isi status"
B."isi config"
C."restripe status"
D."isi restripe"
Answer:A D

Isilon최신덤프   200-045   200-045기출문제   200-045

NO.4 You have a three node cluster configured with +1, and are preparing to add a fourth node. Which of the
following describes the impact of adding the fourth node in regard to file striping? (Choose 1)
A.Files were striped 2+1 with three nodes, and will now be striped 3+1 with four nodes.
B.Files were striped 2+1 with three nodes, and will now be striped 2+1 with four nodes.
C.There is no impact to file striping for existing data, but new data will be striped 3+1
D.Files were striped 2+1 with three nodes, and will now be striped 2+2 with four nodes.
Answer:A

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NO.5 Which of the following commands can be used to start the FlexProtect phase of the restriper? (Choose
1)
A.Enter "isi config", then "flexprotect start"
B.Enter "isi config", then "restripe start flexprotect"
C."isi restripe start flexprotect"
D."isi flexprotect start"
Answer:C

Isilon   200-045덤프   200-045   200-045

NO.6 SyncIQ throttle limits can be applied on a per-replication policy basis. (True/False)
A.True
B.False
Answer:B

Isilon시험문제   200-045시험문제   200-045   200-045시험문제

NO.7 You have a three node IQ 3000 cluster. How many phases of the restriper can be active at one time?
(Choose 1)
A.Three phases of the restriper can be active at one time.
B.Only one phase of the restriper can be active at one time.
C.Six phases of the restriper can be active at one time.
D.Nine phases of the restriper can be active at one time
Answer:B

Isilon최신덤프   200-045   200-045최신덤프   200-045 pdf

NO.8 You have a three node cluster. The AutoBalance phase of the restriper is running. A disk drive fails.
Which of the following best describes the cluster's response to this failure? (Choose 1)
A.The AutoBalance phase of the restriper completes. Once AutoBalance is finished, the FlexProtect
phase of the restriper runs to repair data from the disk failure.
B.The AutoBalance phase of the restriper is cancelled. The Collect phase of the restriper runs to repair
data from the disk failure. After Collect completes, AutoBalance is start.
C.Since the AutoBalance phase of the restriper is already running, it will repair data from the disk failure.
D.The AutoBalance phase of the restriper is cancelled. The FlexProtect phase of the restriper runs to
repair data from the disk failure. After FlexProtect completes, AutoBalance is started
Answer:D

Isilon   200-045   200-045   200-045인증   200-045

NO.9 SnapShotIQ is configured with default settings. You take a one-time snapshot called "test" of the
"/ifs/data" directory. In which of the following ways can you access this snapshot? (Choose 2)
A.Via the "/ifs/.snapshot/test" directory
B.Via the "/snapshots/data" directory
C.Via the "/ifs/data/.snapshot/test" directory
D.Via the "/ifs/data/copies" directory
Answer:A C

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NO.10 Which of the following statements about SmartConnect Advanced is NOT correct? (Choose 1)
A.SmartConnect supports CIFS failover
B.SmartConnect supports NFS failover
C.SmartConnect allows individual nodes to be included or excluded from zones
D.SmartConnect is based on standard DNS
Answer:A

Isilon   200-045   200-045   200-045자료   200-045

NO.11 Which of the following best describes the expected behavior when attempting to add a node running
OneFS 4.5 to a cluster running OneFS 4.1? (Choose 1)
A.The node will be joined to the cluster.
B.You will be prompted to upgrade the cluster.
C.You will be prompted to either upgrade the cluster, or downgrade the node
D.You will be prompted to downgrade the node.
Answer:C

Isilon   200-045   200-045   200-045최신덤프   200-045   200-045인증

NO.12 Which of the following best describes OneFS's NIC redundancy feature? (Choose 1)
A.NIC redundancy allows dynamic IP routing to occur between default gateways accessible via the
External-1 and External-2 networks.
B.NIC redundancy allows External-1 and External-2 to be aggregated into one logical link, so that either
NIC can fail without interrupting external network access.
C.NIC redundancy allows External-1 and External-2 to be utilized in an Active/Passive failover mode.
D.NIC redundancy allows clients to connect to the same file sharing protocols via either External-1 or
External-2.
Answer:B

Isilon최신덤프   200-045시험문제   200-045   200-045자료   200-045인증

NO.13 The client workstations on your network are configured to use DNS server 10.10.10.1, which is
authoritative for the domain "isilon.com". You would like to configure SmartConnect with a zone named
"cluster.isilon.com". Your SmartConnect virtual IP is 10.10.10.100. Which of the following statements is
most accurate in regard to DNS and SmartConnect? (Choose 1)
A.The DNS server 10.10.10.1 must be configured with a delegation (NS) record delegating
"cluster.isilon.com" to the SmartConnect virtual IP 10.10.10.100.
B.The DNS server 10.10.10.1 must be configured with a host (A) record resolving "cluster.isilon.com" to
the SmartConnect virtual IP 10.10.10.100.
C.In order to utilize SmartConnect, the client workstations must be configured to use 10.10.10.100 as
their DNS server.
D.The SmartConnect service must be configured to use 10.10.10.1 as its DNS server
Answer:A

Isilon   200-045   200-045시험문제   200-045   200-045자료

NO.14 Which of the following statements best describes the benefits of the file system journal in OneFS?
(Choose 1)
A.The file system journal is used for coalescing writes before committing them to disk.
B.The file system journal is used to store metadata about the file system in a reliable way.
C.The file system journal is used to permit multiple threads to commit writes to the same file.
D.The file system journal is used to ensure the consistency of the file system.
Answer:D

Isilon dump   200-045기출문제   200-045덤프   200-045

NO.15 You have a cluster with the SnapshotIQ module licensed. The ability for users to view and access the
".snapshot" directories can be controlled per protocol. (True/False)
A.True
B.False
Answer:A

Isilon시험문제   200-045기출문제   200-045   200-045   200-045인증   200-045

NO.16 You have a five node IQ 1920 cluster protected with +1. How many nodes of the cluster have to be up
in order for OneFS to allow writes to the file system? (Choose 1)
A.At least four nodes must be up
B.At least two nodes must be up
C.At least three nodes must be up
D.All five nodes must be up
Answer:C

Isilon최신덤프   200-045최신덤프   200-045   200-045 pdf

NO.17 You have a three node cluster. One node fails, and is in a "DOWN" state. How will the restriper
respond to this situation? (Choose 1)
A.The FlexProtect phase of the restriper will start automatically
B.The AutoBalance phase of the restriper will start automatically
C.The Collect phase of the restriper will start automatically
D.No phase of the restriper will start automatically
Answer:D

Isilon   200-045자료   200-045인증   200-045인증

NO.18 Which of the following statements best describe the use of SNMP with an Isilon cluster? (Choose 2)
A.The cluster can be configured via SNMP
B.The cluster can generate SNMP traps based on Alerts
C.The cluster can generate SNMP traps based on configuration file changes
D.The cluster can be monitored via SNMP
E.The file system can be browsed via SNMP
Answer:B D

Isilon   200-045시험문제   200-045

NO.19 Which of the following nodes has the highest ratio of performance per TB of storage? (Choose 1)
A.IQ 3000
B.IQ 6000
C.IQ 1920
D.EX 6000
Answer:C

Isilon최신덤프   200-045   200-045

NO.20 You have a three node cluster with SmartConnect configured. Which of the following is a correct
statement in regard to the SmartConnect virtual IP? (Choose 1)
A.The SmartConnect virtual IP is active on the highest-numbered node of the cluster. If that node fails, the
virtual IP will move to node 1.
B.The SmartConnect virtual IP is active on node 1. If node 1 fails, the virtual IP will move to node 2.
C.The SmartConnect virtual IP is active on all nodes of the cluster.
D.The SmartConnect virtual IP moves dynamically between nodes of the cluster based on node
performance.
Answer:B

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시험 번호/코드: 132-S-712
시험 이름: Avaya (Specialist: Avaya Proactive Contact Solutions Design Elective Exam)
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NO.1 You are using the Avaya Solution Designer. What is the correct input on the ACD line on the Predictive
Agent Blend software screen for an Avaya Proactive Contact System using Predictive Agent Blending
with one ACD?
A.leave line blank
B.type in the number 1
C.leave line at the default (0)
D.type in the ACD brand name
Answer:C

Avaya   132-S-712 pdf   132-S-712자료   132-S-712

NO.2 Which tool is new to the Editor Application in the Avaya Proactive Contact Supervisor software?
A.verification of jobs
B.record selection reports
C.messages files and scripts
D.IVR fields in record selections
Answer:C

Avaya   132-S-712 pdf   132-S-712   132-S-712

NO.3 Your customer has difficulty sorting through their current system's reports to give supervisors
information that pertains only to their particular group. Which feature should in Avaya Proactive Contact
meets the customer's need?
A.Shared Lists
B.Unit Work List
C.List Distribution
D.Hierarchy Manager
Answer:D

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NO.4 Your customer has a group of agents that handle clerical and other duties and who handle calls only
when needed. A supervisor notifies these agents when they need to answer calls because calls are
queueing or being abandoned. However, the response is often too late to be of much help and the result
is many abandoned calls. Which Avaya Proactive Contact feature meets this customer's needs?
A.Virtual Agent
B.Person to Person
C.Intelligent Call Blending
D.Native Voice & Data Transfer
Answer:B

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NO.5 Which two telemarketing situations would merit greater than a 2:1 line to agent ratio? (Choose two.)
A.using unconfirmed contact data
B.using one of the call blending solutions
C.using unsolicited calling lists (cold calling individuals)
D.calling customers with multiple contact numbers (home, business, etc.)
Answer:A C

Avaya   132-S-712   132-S-712

NO.6 When using the Avaya Solution Designer tool, the License Quantity for Agent Connections should be
equal to the total number of _____.
A.agents in a typical shift
B.simultaneous headset connections
C.inbound lines purchased by the customer
D.outbound lines purchased by the customer
Answer:B

Avaya자료   132-S-712자료   132-S-712   132-S-712덤프

NO.7 What is Update Time?
A.the time period that begins when the agent greets the customer and ends when the customer hangs up
B.the time period that begins when the customer hangs up and ends when the agent releases the
customer record
C.the time period that begins when the agent releases the customer record and ends when the agent
receives the next call
D.the time period that begins when the customer first tells the agent pertinent information and the agent
records it and ends when the agent releases the record
Answer:B

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NO.8 The Avaya Proactive Contact access server provides which two functions within the system? (Choose
two.)
A.connects calls to agents
B.manages the internal LAN
C.serves as a dial-in point for access to the digital switch and CPU
D.is the interface that supervisors and agents use on their computers
Answer:B C

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NO.9 Which feature meets the needs of customers who want to run jobs that play messages to both phones
answered by live customers and phones answered by answering machines?
A.Autowrap
B.Virtual Agent
C.Agent Blending
D.Managed Dialing
Answer:B

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NO.10 Your customer runs a collections call center. When an inbound call comes in, your customer wants be
able to keep the customer from being called back on the outbound jobs if payment was received on the
inbound call. Which feature automatically marks records as uncallable on outbound jobs if the agent uses
a code indicating an inbound call resulted in a payment from the customer?
A.Do Not Call
B.Sales Verification
C.Generic Postupdate
D.Realtime Campaign Update
Answer:D

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시험 번호/코드: 132-S-1002.3
시험 이름: Avaya (Avaya Sales Certification Specialist)
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NO.1 Partners selling to Global Accounts at the Avaya Direct Account Team's invitation must sell which of the
following?
A.Avaya Services only
B.Avaya products only
C.Avaya content for both products and services where Avaya has an applicable offer
D.Any products or services they choose
Answer:C

Avaya dumps   132-S-1002.3   132-S-1002.3 dump   132-S-1002.3시험문제   132-S-1002.3자료

NO.2 Avaya will have direct resources assigned for primary coverage for which two of the following account
types? (Choose two.)
A.Non Global / US Named
B.US Named
C.Global
D.All account types
Answer:B C

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NO.3 A key capability of Avaya's IP Telephony solutions is to extend customer announcements, voicemail
greetings, and other applications from the core to the branches, enabling _____.
A.a higher TCO
B.branch office managers to maintain and administer their own communications systems
C.consistent user experiences
D.each user to have a different, customized experience
Answer:C

Avaya   132-S-1002.3   132-S-1002.3자격증   132-S-1002.3덤프

NO.4 Which enterprise is defined by having over 1000 users, mulitple locations, are often multinational, and
have complex business models?
A.Very-small-sized
B.Small-sized
C.Mid-sized
D.Large-sized
Answer:D

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NO.5 In the Contact Center portfolio, how does Avaya solve this customer problem: Inability to make good
decisions on behalf of customers and to provide personalized customer service?
A.Access to actionable customer data through a single database and reporting platform
B.Ability to extend applications outward through the enterprise
C.Access convenient communications capabilities to find and reach people more effectively
D.Best practice use of technology
Answer:A

Avaya덤프   132-S-1002.3   132-S-1002.3   132-S-1002.3   132-S-1002.3

NO.6 A business process consists of a set of steps that an organization typically uses to execute daily
business and is _____.
A.measurable using Key Process Indicators
B.measurable using Key Performance Indicators
C.measurable using Key Process Instances
D.measurable using Key Primary Indicators
Answer:A

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NO.7 Which are the three basic functions of the Communication Manager Software?
A.PBX functionality, Contact Center functionality, Mobility Server
B.PBX functionality, Mobility Server, IP Softphone
C.Mobility Server, Contact Center functionality, DoS Protection Server
D.Contact Center functionality, PBX functionality, SIP Enablement
Answer:A

Avaya dump   132-S-1002.3   132-S-1002.3인증   132-S-1002.3   132-S-1002.3

NO.8 Which is NOT a common business problem addressable by Avaya's IPT solutions?
A.Inability to get the appropriate parties together to make decision
B.Inability to communicate during a major business interruption
C.Multiple disparate systems that are expensive to maintain
D.Disconnected branch offices
Answer:A

Avaya   132-S-1002.3덤프   132-S-1002.3

NO.9 SIP is a key enabler of intelligent communications because it allows for monitoring of _____.
A.presence
B.metrics
C.call volume
D.process
Answer:A

Avaya인증   132-S-1002.3   132-S-1002.3

NO.10 Who determines the maintenance renewal strategy when a Partner has previously sold a maintenance
agreement to a non Global / US Named Account? (Choose two.)
A.The Avaya Direct team owns the maintenance renewal strategy.
B.The Avaya Telesales team owns the maintenance renewal strategy.
C.The end-user customer.
D.The Partner owns the maintenance renewal strategy, which may include a Channel Service Agreement,
Partner Support Service / Joint Service Delivery, or Wholesale Maintenance.
Answer:C D

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시험 번호/코드: 132-S-900.7
시험 이름: Avaya (Avaya IP Telephony Design Elective Exam)
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Q&A: 77 문항
업데이트: 2014-01-26

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NO.1 The customer has a multi node LAN with connectivity to a 16 location multi-vendor (Juniper, Cisco,
3Com and Avaya) WAN.
When implementing VoIP on this network, which two routing protocols should be implemented? (Choose
two.)
A. RIP
B. IGRP
C. ID 10t
D. OSPF
Answer: AD

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NO.2 In discussing an organization's DHCP strategy, you find they distribute IP address assignment for IP
telephones at the branch location via the telephony gateway.
Which two gateways are viable options to support the customer's DHCP strategy? (Choose two.)
A. G250 Media Gateway
B. G350 Media Gateway
C. G650 Media Gateway
D. G700 Media Gateway
Answer: AB

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NO.3 A customer has an Avaya S87xx Media Server with an Avaya G650 Media Gateway. They want the
remote site tied-in to the main. The remote site has a DSL line for Internet access. They currently have a
secure VPN tunnel to the main site and want to implement VoIP over this tunnel.
What is your biggest concern as a designer?
A. NAT issues
B. implementation issues
C. Security cannot be guaranteed
D. Voice quality cannot be guaranteed
Answer: D

Avaya   132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7

NO.4 A customer is looking to add a remote location to the S8730. They will have six IP telephones that will
require PoE, two analog CO lines and require basic survivability. Which of the following would you
recommend?
A. G250 - analog / SLS
B. G250 - analog / LSP
C. G350 - analog / SLS
D. IG550 / SLS
Answer: A

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NO.5 Your client is considering a VoIP application for their S8500 Media Server and G650 Media Gateway.
Due to the time-sensitive nature of VoIP applications, several issues should be discussed prior to arriving
at a final design.
Which two VoIP guidelines should you discuss with the customer? (Choose two.)
A. VoIP should be implemented on an entirely switched network.
B. VoIP will cause some discourse due to lower voice quality than TDM calls.
C. VoIP endpoints should be placed on separate subnets or VLANs based on communities of interest.
D. When PCs are attached to IP phones, the uplink to the Ethernet switch should be at least 20 Mbps.
Answer: AC

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NO.6 In a distributed S87xx Media Server system with G650 Media Gateways in 3 port networks, what is the
distance concern with the TDM cable length?
A. Due to the length of the TDM cable, the slack must be coiled and secured to the back of the PN.
B. The TDM cable can be ordered to custom fit the system. The designer must know the PN to G650
layout.
C. If the incorrect cable length attribute is chosen, it will not allow the associated G650s to connect to the
PN.
D. Due to its limited length, each G650 of a PN must be co-located in the same 19 inch data rack as the
rest of the PN.
Answer: D

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NO.7 The S87xx platform is available as a net new system in which configuration?
A. Voice Bearer over ATM
B. Stand Alone (S87xx only)
C. Traditional G3R without IP
D. Voice Bearer over IP (IP Connect)
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer wants to use an Avaya S87xx Media Server with Avaya G700 Gateways at remote
locations. Each G700 Gateway will include an S8300 Local Survivable Processor and approximately 75
IP sets incorporating G.711.
What Avaya feature allows IP sets to register with the S8300 if connectivity to the S87xx is lost?
A. Local CLAN board
B. Alternate Gatekeeper
C. S8300 Auto-Registration
D. Gateway Alternate Redirection
Answer: B

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NO.9 You have a corporate site with an S87xx Media Server in location A, and a remote site with an
G700/S8300 LSP processor in Location B. The WAN connection goes down.
In what sequence will the G700 register with the S8300?
A. Each H.248 gateway will reboot and register with the S8300 LSP when it comes back up.
B. The S8300 LSP processor reboots, and then notifies each H.248 gateway it is now the primary call
processor.
C. The S8300 LSP processor notifies each H.248 gateway in the media controller list that it is now the
primary call processor.
D. Each H.248 gateway will detect that the S87xx Media Server is not available and will reregister with the
next Media Server in the media controller list.
Answer: D

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NO.10 You are preparing to design an IP Telephony-based S87xx. You are assisting the client in determining
the type of QoS/CoS they should incorporate on their data network.
What do you recommend? (Choose two.)
A. Routed networks should use IEEE 802.1p/Q.
B. Switched networks should use IEEE 802.1p/Q.
C. Mixed networks should use either DSCP or IEEE 802.1p/Q.
D. Routed networks should use DiffServ Code Points (DSCP).
Answer: BD

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NO.11 An RFP for a Interactive Voice Response (IVR) unit and mid-sized communication system has been
released. You are responsible for determining the design solution. The RFP states that the IVR platform
must be engineered to handle 135 25-second messages during the busy hour. You calculate this
requirement to equal 47 ports.
If you provide 47 ISDN PRI trunks (two ISDN PRI facilities), which two traffic concerns must you consider?
(Choose two.)
A. No trunk growth is available on the ISDN PRI facilities.
B. 47 active trunks overload the two ISDN PRI facilities, seriously affecting traffic load and call
completions.
C. Considering there is only one channel for signaling, a backup D channel cannot be provided, affecting
traffic if the D channel fails.
D. ISDN PRI facilities direct from the central office limit the caller's ability to connect to the proper
resource, causing increased usage.
Answer: AC

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NO.12 Within an S8500 Server, 25 IP Telephony endpoints are connected to 10 digital sets, 10 IP sets, and 5
CO trunks.
How many TN2602 Media Processor boards are required if G.729 is incorporated?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which three are QoS/CoS recommendations that the Avaya Solution Designer can make to
optimize an all Avaya Converged IP Solution? (Choose three.)
A. Switched networks should use IEEE 802.1p/Q.
B. Routed networks should use DiffServ Code Points.
C. Port priority can also be used to enhance 802.1p/Q and DiffServ.
D. Mixed networks should choose only one (802.1p/Q or DSCP) as a best practice.
Answer: ABC

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NO.14 Which two design issues relate to increasing security in VoIP converged solutions? (Choose two.)
A. suggesting upgrading LAN switches to support QoS
B. defining VLANs to limit access from specific IP endpoints
C. considering encryption on IP calls for protection from eavesdropping
D. considering G.729 compression to protect IP calls from eavesdropping
Answer: BC

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NO.15 Your client's department store business has 24 locations worldwide. Each location has its own
communications switch and is included in a QSIG network. The stores have standardized on specific
extension numbers representing departments. The client is considering moving to a single, distributed
S8700 system but is concerned with the loss of dial plan functionalities.
How do you address the client's concern?
A. provide Uniform Dial Plan software
B. utilize ACM Multi-location Dial Plan software
C. create unique extensions per location for each application
D. relate that standard S87xx dial plan software will address the issues
Answer: B

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NO.16 If a customer has multiple systems from different vendors and wants to network them together, which
software should be used?
A. DCS
B. ARS
C. UDP
D. QSIG
Answer: D

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NO.17 A sales engineer completes an S87xx Media Server/G650 Media Gateway design which includes IP
Telephony, multi-locations, and LAN/WAN integration. One of the deliverables for handoff to the
implementation team is the network region design.
What four IP endpoint characteristics may be included in the network region design document? (Choose
four.)
A. codec set
B. UDP port ranges
C. 802.1p/Q settings
D. VLAN assignments
E. identification of locations
Answer: ABCE

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NO.18 Your customer solution requirements call for a mix of SIP and H.323 endpoints. Which entity in the SIP
Infrastructure can perform routing of sessions invitations, authentications and accounting functions?
A. SIP Proxy
B. SIP redirect
C. SIP registrar
D. SIP media gateway controller
Answer: A

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NO.19 A client is implementing an S87xx Media Server with several G650 Media Gateways. They are
concerned with overheating in the equipment room, especially in the equipment power units.
Which two conditions cause a G650 power supply to initiate an emergency shutdown? (Choose two.)
A. overvoltage
B. overheating
C. undervoltage
D. high humidity
Answer: AB

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NO.20 Which three should be investigated when validating a wireless network design? (Choose three.)
A. installed ductwork and walls
B. locations of network servers
C. other wireless networks in the area
D. operating system of user machines
E. environmental, moisture, temperature variations
Answer: ACE

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